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Who do you think is to blame for the outbreak of war in 1939?

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  • Who do you think is to blame for the outbreak of war in 1939?

    With so many conflicting viewpoints from different historians an example being AJP Taylor, i'm finding it hard to establish who is really to blame. Could you help me with making up my mind?

    Thanks

  • #2
    Germany was spoiling for a fight, Hitler's invasion of Poland was the spark that triggered it but it would've come sooner or later.

    Britain and France had to stop Germany's aggression and also try to put the brakes on Stalin.

    Of course, without Versailles, Germany would never have been desperate enough to give power to Hitler in the first place.
    Indyref2 - still, "Yes."

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    • #3
      Originally posted by the ace View Post
      Germany was spoiling for a fight, Hitler's invasion of Poland was the spark that triggered it but it would've come sooner or later.

      Britain and France had to stop Germany's aggression and also try to put the brakes on Stalin.

      Of course, without Versailles, Germany would never have been desperate enough to give power to Hitler in the first place.
      Very true, does that make Hitler completely or only partially responsible?

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      • #4
        Chamberlain warned Hitler several times. He was very clear that Britain would declare war if Germany attacked Poland. Chamberlain was so reluctant that he waited three days until finally declaring war. If Hitler did not invade Poland, then there would be no war in 1939.

        Who is to blame? Plenty of people, but ultimately, it was Hitler who committed the first act of war.
        Historian on the Warpath | Medievalism on Screen: An Annotated Bibliography

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        • #5
          Originally posted by scottmanning View Post
          Who is to blame? Plenty of people, but ultimately, it was Hitler who committed the first act of war.
          Does that make him the most at blame because of commiting the first act of war or only partially?

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          • #6
            Originally posted by darkwolf176 View Post
            Does that make him the most at blame because of commiting the first act of war or only partially?
            He is the most at blame. If Hitler did not attack Poland, then I can't see a scenario where war breaks out in 1939.
            Historian on the Warpath | Medievalism on Screen: An Annotated Bibliography

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            • #7
              The ultimate blame falls on the boneheads who made the versailles treaty. If we went with the 14 points (the be fair to germany treaty option) or went with even harsher terms (break germany back into the tiny principalities it was before and ban prussia from ever uniting under threat of war, while greatly limiting it's army to only 10,000, not allowing it to have an air force or navy or marine corps, and letting Poland, Belgium, Italy, and France take up large portions of what was once Germany, but still letting the Prussians have their monarchs for a constitutional monarchy like in britain as a consolation, or at least this is how I would do it if I were in charge and on this camp) war would have been avoided.
              Standing here, I realize you were just like me trying to make history.
              But who's to judge the right from wrong.
              When our guard is down I think we'll both agree.
              That violence breeds violence.
              But in the end it has to be this way.

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              • #8
                Who started it

                I hold France mainly responsible for starting WW2. If Georges Clemenceu had not insisted on the fullest measures of the Versailles Treaty being invoked on Germany instead of easing away as in the case of USA and GB among others, then Germany would not have been saddled with the swinging crippling War Debts it incurred, but No, not old Georges, that nasty vindictive old scrote insisted on screwing Germany into the ground in various acts of vengence for crimes real or imagined commited by Les Boches in the hope that Germany would never rise to prominence in the world again.

                WE all know the result of that blind philosophy. Francaise, J'accuse.

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                • #9
                  Originally posted by Czin View Post
                  The ultimate blame falls on the boneheads who made the versailles treaty. If we went with the 14 points (the be fair to germany treaty option) or went with even harsher terms (break germany back into the tiny principalities it was before and ban prussia from ever uniting under threat of war, while greatly limiting it's army to only 10,000, not allowing it to have an air force or navy or marine corps, and letting Poland, Belgium, Italy, and France take up large portions of what was once Germany, but still letting the Prussians have their monarchs for a constitutional monarchy like in britain as a consolation, or at least this is how I would do it if I were in charge and on this camp) war would have been avoided.
                  Good point but it raises the question, which would have been more effective a more lenient Treaty of Versailles or as you suggest a harsher one.

                  I think an important point to mention here is that Britain, I think didn't want to create a vengeful Germany so were geared towards perhaps a more lenient settlement whilst France wanted to completely destroy Germany. The end result seems to me a mixture between the two which created more problems than it solved.

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                  • #10
                    Originally posted by Scabby Rat View Post
                    I hold France mainly responsible for starting WW2. If Georges Clemenceu had not insisted on the fullest measures of the Versailles Treaty being invoked on Germany instead of easing away as in the case of USA and GB among others, then Germany would not have been saddled with the swinging crippling War Debts it incurred
                    Germany was more than capable of paying the Reparations enforced upon it, the truth of the matter is they never really accepted defeat and were simply unwilling to pay.

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                    • #11
                      I thought the question was who was responsible for the outbreak of war in 1939, not who was responsible for creating the conditions that allowed Hitler to rise to power.
                      Historian on the Warpath | Medievalism on Screen: An Annotated Bibliography

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                      • #12

                        I'll put my hand up, it was me.

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                        • #13
                          Originally posted by scottmanning View Post
                          I thought the question was who was responsible for the outbreak of war in 1939, not who was responsible for creating the conditions that allowed Hitler to rise to power.
                          I agree . But maybe they are responsible albeit indirectly.

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                          • #14
                            Originally posted by darkwolf176 View Post
                            I agree . But maybe they are responsible albeit indirectly.
                            No one 'forced' Hitler to attack Poland.

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                            • #15
                              Verailles was rough, no doubt. Germany needed to rearm because of the existence of the Soviet Union made some kind of WWII inevitable. But the sole responisibility of the war we know was the great douche, Adolf Hitler. There is no way to shuffle the blame. Hitler did not need to go towar and was told it was a bad idea, but he did it anyway.
                              How many Allied tanks it would take to destroy a Maus?
                              275. Because that's how many shells there are in the Maus. Then it could probably crush some more until it ran out of gas. - Surfinbird

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